UNDERSTANDING TONGUES SPEAKING - part 1

This is the introduction of a series I am starting on the biblical perspective of tongues speaking. To try to speak on this subject is like starting a war. Tongue speaking is, if not the most, one of the controversial topics in modern Christianity. A lot of debates have being organised and a lot of big brains have argued vehemently on this matter. I am not here to outsmart them but to offer a biblical insight I think will help you discern between the biblical way of speaking in tongues and the false gibberish practiced by many. Inarguably, tongues speaking is seen to be prominent in the neo-Pentecostal movement (charismatic). A writer once said that if one boils down the charismatic movement to its basic, several ingredients, tongues will be one of them. Not only charismatics practice this gift but its mother Pentecostals too. It's not surprising that tongue speaking is creeping even into the Roman Catholic Church. The real question that we should ask ourselves is; are these tongue speakers doing it in God's way?

I have pondered over this question for years and this moved me to dig deep into the word of God for clarity and finally triggered me to write this blog for the edification of my fellow Christians. 'Tongues'is mentioned in three parts of the Bible (Mark 16:17, Acts 2,10 and 19 and 1 Corinthians). Jesus promised tongues as a sign that will follow those who believe in Mark 16;17 and we see this miracle happen in Acts 2 and other subsequent chapters (10 and 19). This series will be based specifically on 1 Corinthians 14. That's where most of the misconceptions emanate from. But before we dive deep into this verse, I would like us to take a critical look at some salient points with regards to tongue speaking.

1. Tongues as mentioned in the scriptures mean languages (Glossa)Gk.
2. People understood what was being said by the tongue speakers their dialects (dialektos) Gk. (Acts 2:9,10 and 11)
3. 'Tongues' is not learnt. "7 They were amazed and astonished, saying, "Why, are not all these who are speaking Galileans? 8 And how is it that we each hear them in our own language to which we were born? (Acts 2:7-8)"
   Gallileans were uneducated people. They had not attended any school of languages and this led to their surprise. It was God who spoke through them "as the Spirit gave them utterance. (Acts 2:4)"
4. The fourth and final point I would make here is that Paul did not write 1 Corinthians 14 to applaud them on how they use their gift of tongue but rather to rebuke and correct them. This is key to understanding the whole of 1 Corinthians. That book was purposely written to correct some of the problems in the church.

A careful study of history makes it clear that the people of Corinth were pagan worshippers. They were affluent people since they traded with the Italians and Asians. And this contributed to the numerous problems in the church as
Mathew Henry puts it this way in his commentary on the book of Corinthians
"And it is but too visible how much their wealth had helped to corrupt their manners, from the several faults for which the apostle reprehends them. Pride, avarice, luxury, lust (the natural offspring of a carnal and corrupt mind), are all fed and prompted by outward affluence."
They indulged in immorality (maybe because there was no law against it - cf. 1 Corinthians 6) for Paul said in verse 12 of chapter 6 "All things are lawful unto me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but I will not be brought under the power of any." Their immorality was so high that the phrase 'Corinthian woman' became proverbial to mean (korinthiasesthai. Gk ) that is "to play the Corinthian" or to indulge in whorish inclinations. And here I think Paul was not happy with them since he had tarried with them for almost two years (Acts 18;11,18) to teach them all the basic neccesary things about Christianity. It seemed Paul's work was being infiltrated by the lifestyle of the culture. In chapter 1;12 downwards, Paul condemned the division amongst them. In chapter 5,he rebuked them on immorality. He also corrects them on how to deal with matters that arise between fellow Christians in chapter 6. He further gives instructions on marriage in chapter 7 and etc. So here in chapter 14, guess what? he is writing to condemn and correct their usage of their spiritual gifts and not to commend them especially on the issue of speaking in tongues. The Corinthians had deviated from the purpose of their spiritual gifts and had turned it into a test for spirituality such that those who had the showy gifts were seen to be more spiritual than others.

To understand this chapter we must know that Paul's choice of words were were sometimes hyperbolic and ironic. For example, in verse 2 of chapter 14 he said "For one who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God; for no one understands, but in his spirit he speaks mysteries" . We all know that tongues mean languages and the people in Acts understood what the 120 said in their own dialects, so how can Paul say that he "does not speak to men but to God"? Well, I think we can understand this by taking what spiritual gifts are in the general sense. Spiritual gifts are not to edify God but men. This is made clear in 1 Peter 4;10. "As each one has received a special gift, employ it in serving one another as good stewards of the manifold grace of God. " and 1 Corinthians 12;7 says "7 A spiritual gift is given to each of us so we can help each other". God does not need help from men in any way for if that is so He will cease to be God. He is self-existent. We need help from one another and that is the purpose of his gifts and ministries.
So in effect Paul is saying that these Corinthians speak in languages that their fellow Christians do not understand and because of that their words are mysteries and therefore understood by God alone for he alone knows all things.

He also says that the "One who speaks in a tongue edifies himself; but one who prophesies edifies the church. (1 Corinthians 14:4)". Is Paul here recommending tongue speakers to edify themselves. No. That will make this verse conflict with all other teachings on spiritual gifts. They are for the service of others. They are not given for selfish gain. Since someone can not sit in a room teach himself, evangelise, shepherd himself, interpret his own words etc, the same way one can not speak in tongues unto himself but "Let all things be done for edification (verse 26)" he saids.
Paul always reecho the need for edification throughout the chapter to draw their attention to the purpose of their spiritual gifts.

The last thing I will touch on in today's chapter is this
"Now I wish that you all spoke in tongues, but even more that you would prophesy; and greater is one who prophesies than one who speaks in tongues, unless he interprets, so that the church may receive edifying. (1 Corinthians 14:5)" . This is an example of hyperbole in Paul's writings. Similar ones are found in chapter 7;7 when he said that "Yet I wish that all men were even as I myself am. However, each man has his own gift from God, one in this manner, and another in that." is Paul here saying that we must all be single? No. Is he exalting celibacy above marriage?. Not at all. He is trying to let them understand that singleness is as good as marriage since both of them are God-given gifts. The Corinthians perhaps thought that everyone must marry and here Paul was writing to correct them. He needed to send it to that extreme so that they would know that celibacy is also a gift from God just as marriage. So is this verse. He is in other words bringing to their notice that though he had raised prophecy above tongue speaking, it is still a good thing if practiced in order.

Next time I will continue on from verse 6

Thanks for following this series. Don't miss out on part 2.