Has no effect on culture?
You can find yourself asking the most basic questions that criticize this hypothesis. Does culture affect language, or does language affect culture? Although I believe that this effect is mutual, the hypothesis argues that the effect of the language is higher.
At this point, the hypothesis is criticized because it cannot be proved that the source of influence is the language. For example; While Eskimos do not have any words corresponding to the camel, in Arabic, the word of the walking of camel corresponds to a different word. Here, the effect of the geography of the language should not be ignored.
The research done so far, the effect of research in culture and so on. They have done a research that removes other effects in order to see that they are not caused by language, but rather by language: They teach Mandarince, which is a perceptual perception of vertical English. As a result of the research, people who speak English have a vertical perception of time, like the people who know Mandarin, and they answer questions about vertical time perception more easily.
At the same time, it was seen that people answered the questions of time about their language patterns more easily. For example; The Swedes, who define the time as volume, have difficulty in understanding the time in terms of length definitions.
What if we carry these discussions from the past to the future? Do you think that when we teach language to artificial intelligence, do they also have the difference of time-direction perception? If such an effect does not occur when the languages are encoded, what is the effect of it, or can it be transmitted by encoding if it occurs?
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